Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
16.06.2025 06:07
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What is the boldest and craziest thing your mother has ever done for you?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Have you ever been instructed/forced to crossdress for the benefit of others?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What was your worst experience while living with roommates?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.